Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 10:45
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Why did my crush like me for only two days in a row?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
After 70 years of the crappiest computers ever made, why does IBM exist?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Can one still satisfy the desires of Black women with a more discreet endowment?"?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.